Page 9
Aircraft papers and airspace;
CERTIFICATES AND DOCUMENTS;
The Aircraft; Sequence
of Decision for Airworthiness; FAR
91 Aircraft equipment required; OBTAINING
WEATHER INFORMATION; CROSS-COUNTRYPLANNING;
NATIONAL AIRSPACE SYSTEM; Airspace; Airspace
Violations; Altitude & Airspace;
Part-time Airspace; Air
Traffic Control (ATC); Class Alpha;
Class Bravo; Class
Charlie; Class Delta; Flight
in Class D Airspace?; Class Echo;
Class Golf;
Airways; Prohibited;
Restricted; Warning;
Alert; Military
Operations; Training routes;
Special Use; Temporary;
Controlled Firing; SR
training routes; wildlife
AREA OF OPERATION
PREFLIGHT OPERATION
A. Task: CERTIFICATES AND DOCUMENTS
REFERENCES; FARs 43, 61 and 91; AC 61-21, AC61-23; Pilot's handbook and Flight Manual
P Locate and use aircraft and personal papers and records.
EX Pilot privileges and limitations, medical certificate, log book requirements, biennial, radio license, airworthiness, registration, station license, placards, manual, weight and balance, maintenance records.
A private pilot, when current and qualified in a properly equipped aircraft can fly anywhere flight is allowed or clearance given, except for hire. The pilot must know and follow the Federal Air Regulations (FAR's). He must have a current medical certificate and have logged the required three takeoffs and landings in a specified type/class of aircraft for both day or night (full stop) as determined for the flight. Two years subsequent to licensing, he must pass a flight review and have it entered into his logbook. A radio license is no longer required in the United States but is required otherwise.
The FAA calls the pilot's license a "certificate". It is one of several kinds, including the flight instructor certificate. The certificate is in two parts.
1) Definition of privileges
2) Ratings that specify kinds of aircraft to which the privileges apply.
A student pilot certificate allows solo flight. The aircraft ratings are added by the instructor for each aircraft. The private pilot certificate adds the privilege of carrying passengers not for hire. Additional ratings to the private certificate are instrument and any category, class or type. You are expected to know the varieties of ratings available. The commercial certificate allows flying for hire except were FAR 135 or 121 strictures must be met.
A private pilot, when current and qualified in a properly equipped aircraft can fly anywhere flight is allowed or clearance given, except for hire. The pilot must know and follow the Federal Air Regulations (FAR's). He must have a current medical certificate and have logged the required takeoffs and landings in a specified type/class of aircraft for both day and night as determined for the flight. Two years subsequent to licensing, he must pass a flight review and have it entered into his logbook. A radio license is no longer required in the United States. Get a radio license before going to Canada or Mexico.
Ratings identify the aircraft specified as a category and class. There are four categories: airplane, rotocraft, lighter-than-air, and glider. The first three are divided into classes. Airplane classes are single engine land, multi-engine land, single-engine sea and multi-engine sea. Rotocraft are either gyrocoper or helicopter. Lighter-than-air is airship and free balloon. A type rating is required for aircraft over 12,000 pounds, jets and some parts of FAR 121 and 135. (See AC 61-89B)
Any earned pilot certificate can serve as a student certificate in learning to fly a different class or category. This means you can use your Private Pilot certificate to learn to fly a helicopter. The instructor endorsements are made in the logbook instead of on the certificate.
Make, model, serial number and "N" number can identify an aircraft. You should know the year the aircraft was built and any major ADs that have applied since it was built.
The aircraft acquires an airworthiness certificate when built or when undergoing major repair. If the required inspections have not been made the airworthiness certificate is not valid. Every aircraft is required to have an annual inspection. Any aircraft used for instruction, compensation or hire is required to have 100-hour inspections.
As issued the certificate remains valid as long as the aircraft is maintained per FARs 43 (maintenance) and FARs 91. After manufacture, the FAA may issue Airworthiness Directories (ADs) to correct perceived flaws. ADs amend the original airworthiness by requiring FAR compliance. This may be by structural change, maintenance, inspection, or placard. An AD may require immediate, recurrent or delayed compliance.
Non-compliance renders the aircraft unairworthy and may void insurance coverage. The aircraft owner is responsible for AD compliance. The pilot must know where to find the AD compliance list and should talk to a mechanic as to the interpretation of its codes. The requirement for this knowledge is barely recognizable in the PTS but it is there.
FAR 91.213 has to do with MELs (Minimum Equipment Lists) 91.213(d) applies to aircraft without MELs. AC 91-67, Minimum Equipment Requirements for General Aviation Operations Under part 91. Essentially, those aircraft not having MELs must comply with the original operating equipment when the aircraft was certified as airworthy. Once the aircraft's type design data have been established, they are published in an Aircraft Specification Sheet or Type Certificate Data Sheet. The data on these sheets apply throughout its operational life.
FAR 91.405 directs the owner/operator to have discrepancies repaired or placarded as permitted to be inoperative by 91.213(d)(2) until the next inspection and placarded until then as required by FAR 43.11.
Sequence of Decision for Airworthiness:
Is it required by FAR 91.2095 or 91.213(d)(2)(ii)
If not
Is it required by VFR-day type certificate requirements
If not
Is it required by Airworthiness Directive?
If not
Is it required by FARs 91.107, 91.171, 91.185, 91.205, 91.207,
91.209 or FAR 91.213(d)(2)(ii)
If not
The inoperative must be removed or deactivated by a qualified mechanic and placarded as "inoperative". All work done must be logged and if removed the weight and balance must be calculated and corrected. FAR 43.9
Depending on flight conditions certain basic instruments are required. The groups are flight, engine, navigation and communication. If any required instruments are missing it is up to the pilot to determine the legality of flight. In general, if the aircraft received its airworthiness certificate with a device installed and operational, then it is required for every flight.
FAR 91.213 (a) Vs (d) says that you may (or may not) takeoff in an aircraft depending on how it meets four equipment requirements.
Non-turbine and without a master Minimum Equipment List. (MEL)
Item not required by FAR, MEL, or AD
Item removed or deactivated, placarded, maintenance log entries
made, dated and signed by qualified and certified technician.
The technician must determine that (3) above is not a hazard.
FAR 91 aircraft equipment required:
Day VFR minimum equipment: airspeed, altimeter, compass, tachometer, fuel gauge, oil temperature, oil pressure, (gear indicator and manifold pressure)
Night VFR minimum equipment: Position lights, beacon, power source, and a flashlight. Class D airspace requires a radio while Class C and B requires radio, and an encoding transponder.
Transponder required above 10,000' in TCA, in ARSA, and above ARSA.
FAR 91.413 requires the transponder to be checked and certified within the preceding 24 calendar months.
Oxygen requirements change at 12,500, 13,000, and 14,000
High altitude checkout required to fly pressurized aircraft.
Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) is required on all aircraft with some exceptions. FAR 91.207. 50 nm training flights are exempted. The ELT battery must be replaced after one hour of use or on a date of expected half-life. The ELT must be placarded and signed as to date of installation and the expiration dates of this half-life. The logbooks also require a signature by an Airframe & Power Plant (A&P) for this information. As a pilot you must know where to find this information.
IFR flight has specific checks of VORs, altimeters, and static systems.
Registration is required for legal ownership. The only way to be sure of registration is to check with the FAA Aircraft Registration Branch, in Oklahoma City. Every three years the validity of this registration must be confirmed to the FAA. FAR Part 47. This is a very neglected part of aircraft paper work. Registration expires according to Advisory Circular 61-23B after any of the following:
(1) Replaced by foreign registry
(2) Aircraft destroyed/scrapped
(3) Request to cancel
(4) Holder loses U.S. citizenship
(5) 30 days after death of holder
(6) Transfer of ownership
(7) Registration expires if owner leaves country for 6 months. A
waiver of this expiration can be obtained.
Placards or manuals must be in every aircraft, giving the performance limitations of the aircraft not limited to maneuvering speed, gross weight, prohibitions, and performance. Color-coded markings on the instruments are part of the limitations. Color codes on the airspeed indicator show never exceed speeds, normal operating speeds, flap operating speeds, and turbulent air limitations. The tachometer shows never exceed RPM, and sometimes ranges to be avoided for continuous operations. Normally, you wouldn't need a specific document, on file with the FAA, listing the operating limitations for a specific model aircraft.
Weight and balance papers are specific to each aircraft and must be available. Any subsequent items permanently affixed to the aircraft must be added as weight and balance elements to the papers. It is a violation of the FARs to operate an aircraft in non-compliance of the operating limitations of the airworthiness certificate. Some aircraft manuals (Mooney's) are required equipment.
Airframe and engine logbooks must show all maintenance performed. Any aircraft used for instructional purposes must have 100-hour inspections. All aircraft are required to have annual inspections. Minor maintenance may be performed by other than a licensed mechanic. It is a violation of the FARs to operate an aircraft in non-compliance of the operating limitations of the airworthiness certificate. The recommendations of manufacturer bulletins and the operating handbook regarding maintenance should be followed. FAR 91.407 requires a flight check and aircraft sign-off for any maintenance that changes flight characteristics. During the test you will be expected to know the location, requirements, and terminology of these logs as well as to explain the numbering system and meaning of each column on the AD chart.
Go through both the airframe and engine logbooks and post-it the last annual, inspection, the last 100-hour, the last ELT entry, the last transponder entry, and any supplemental modifications made.
Consider the CHECKLIST a required document.
B. Task: OBTAINING WEATHER INFORMATION
REFERENCES: AC 0-6, AC 00-45, AC 61-21, AC 61-23, AC 61-84 and AIM
P Read reports, charts, forecasts, NOTAMS, PIREPS,
AIRMETS, and SIGMETS. Makes considered decision.
EX Total data required for flight, winds aloft, visibility, weather, turbulence, airport conditions, surface winds, and flight restrictions. (You may expect to interpret any one of the charts in AC 00-45C during the oral part of the flight test)
Winds aloft vary with altitude. It is necessary to select the wind and altitude combination most favorable to the flight. Generally you want to fly high with tail winds and low with head winds. Forecast winds are used to find estimated headings and ground speeds for planning purposes. These are adjusted in flight for actual conditions. Winds are never exactly as forecast.
Visibility and aircraft performance helps you select checkpoints at practical /useable distances. Visibilities less than three miles require flight in uncontrolled airspace 700'/1200' AGL. Lower visibilities, sometimes caused by sun position, ceilings, or terrain, makes planning for airport arrivals more difficult.
Cloud conditions can prevent flying at the most preferred altitude. 1000 over/500 below limits may make necessary a higher or lower than optimum altitude. Fog ceilings may make it necessary to be off course when departing. Do not plan any flight, which may take you on top of worse than scatted clouds, into worsening weather, or between cloud layers.
Turbulent conditions, such as below scattered clouds may make flying above them more desirable. Passenger comfort and aircraft control are the limiting factors. High winds cause terrain induced turbulence which are given in AIRMETS, and SIGMETS usually as occurring below a certain altitude. If flying in turbulence, it will be less severe at slower speeds. Visualize a light car Vs a heavy car crossing railroad tracks as how weight and speed affects turbulence. Light turbulence rocks things, moderate slides, heavy jumps. The yellow caution range of the airspeed indicator should be avoided usually and never entered during turbulence.
Airport conditions are a seldom requested element of a weather briefing. Every airport periodically undergoes construction shutdowns or modifications, which are part of required flight knowledge. The FSS is supposed to have this information. The existence of temporary obstructions may require a change in arrival procedure. A phone call to your destination is cheap insurance.
Knowledge of surface winds helps you plan both your departure and arrival. By having some idea of winds you can pre-plan your turns to checkpoints, communications, and the arrival process. Crosswinds may exceed the capabilities of your aircraft thus effectively canceling the flight. NOTAMS must be requested. They may include restrictions to flight related to disaster areas, presidential parties, military activities, or air shows. Failure to acquire this knowledge prior to the flight could create serious flight test problems since the examiner probably knows of them.
See instructional material on SVFR (Special Visual Flight Rules) and flight in marginal conditions.
C. Task: CROSS-COUNTRY PLANNING
REFERENCES: AC 61-21, AC 61-23, AC 61-84, Charts, A/FD, AIM
P Obtains weather briefing, use of sectional, plotting course, checkpoint selection, computes time/heading/fuel, selects radio/nav aids, identifies airspace/terrain/alternatives, uses proper publications, completes navigational log, files flight plan, shows knowledge and accuracy.
EX Items to be covered in weather briefing, sectional data available, elements of navigation, checkpoint criteria, route and altitude factors, frequency log, alternative options, availability of AIM, complete navigational log, transfer of essentials to sectional,
(You will be given a flight to plan and time to do the planning. I would suggest getting a DUAT briefing along several routes ahead of time. Be able to explain how to obtain any figure required and its significance. Know the charts and radio frequencies.) Get NOTAMS ahead of time.
Give the briefer your complete call sign, time and route of flight. Ask for a complete briefing, record it if you can but tell the briefer. All briefings are recorded by the FSS. Ask for and get surface winds at enroute airports and destination, freezing level (Z-level), expected fog conditions, and NOTAMS. The complete briefing will include synopsis (big picture), winds aloft, flight conditions, area forecast, sequence reports, terminal forecasts, and radar summary. It is now possible to use a home computer to get the entire flight planned using a modem. By getting a broad briefing before meeting the examiner you can save yourself time that may be spent on FSS 'hold'.
Knowledge of the current sectional must include all elements on the legend, reference to the tower frequency tab on back of legend, use of directions for transferring course lines to both sides, game reserve restrictions, and data related to restricted areas. You should be able to locate any point from designated latitude and longitude and to use distance markings correctly.
You must proceed systematically. Use a pre-prepared scratch form to enter data from differing sources, FSS, manual, sectional, aircraft and computer. Wind direction and speed, TAS, TC to compute GS and TH, then variation and deviation. Be sure to have a copy of the deviation card from the aircraft. Transfer the data to your navigational log.
Select and mark your checkpoints using aircraft performance, visibility, and usability. Skill developed in training can save time. Determine minimum safe and appropriate cruise altitudes with call up/descent point.
Make a columnar frequency log for each com/nav radio. Arrange the frequencies exactly as you expect to use them and add supplementary frequencies to the side. Transfer this to a card that can be placed in view while flying. Use the card to keep the radio "ahead" of the airplane where practical.
Since it is unlikely that the entire course will be flown on the flight test, study the sectional. Plan for options, limitations, and factors. Put pattern altitudes of nearby airports on sectional along with frequencies and runway numbers.
Get the use of an AIM from a subscriber. A back issue may satisfy the examiner if you let him know that the tower has a current edition available for pilots. Some airport offices also have the AIM. It is best for you to become familiar with its format and contents ahead of time. You may be expected to locate specific information contained in the AIM.
Complete the navigational log with time/distance/ ground speed/fuel use estimated between checkpoints. Transfer MC to the sectional course line along with fuel tank changes, VOR radial numbers, and descent/call up points. Fold sectional so that it is immediately available along with the radio log. The complete navigational log should be on a clipboard. You should make initial entry of times on the sectional and then transfer them to the nav-log. Have extra pens and pencils. Some of them could be hung from the clipboard by strings. Arrange your CHECKLISTS for convenient use.
D. Task: NATIONAL AIRSPACE SYSTEM
REFERENCES: FARs 71, 91, Charts, and AIM
P Knowledge of National Airspace System
EX VFR minimums for all airspaces
Airspace classes, boundaries, pilot requirements, aircraft requirements for: Classes A, B, C, D, E, G, special use and other.
The reason for change is to simplify and commonality with rest of world. Expected to simplify pilot certification requirements, aircraft equipment requirements, and ATC services for each class of airspace.
If Classes overlap the rules for the higher class apply. This prevents overlapping. The ARSA of an airport (Class C) preempts a control zone of an adjacent airport (Class D)
Airspace with radar advisories available, but not required, will probably be ringed in black. 200-kt speed limit will be below 2500 AGL Bravo, Charlie as standard but some Delta airspace will have a 4.4 nm radius with some only 3.1 nm. Delta and Echo airspace extensions of the Delta footprint exist only when the tower is open.
One of the beauties of IFR clearance flying even on VFR flights is that you just fly your clearance. There will be no changes in IFR rules or operations. Airspace restrictions and requirements do not exist as a problem. However, you are expected to be flawless in maintaining your altitude and course. IFR charts will neither depict towered airports surrounded by Class D airspace nor show the Class Echo-surface airports.
The purpose of VFR minimums is to protect and separate VFR aircraft from IFR aircraft. IFR pilots are guaranteed by the government that they are alone in airspace below VFR minimums. The government guaranteed Liberty Bonds after WWI, too.
Major space problems with ATC in order of occurrence are:
Entering ARSA/TCA without authorization
Runway incursions
Altitude deviations.
A violation of Class C airspace typically results in a 60 or 90 day suspension of flight privileges. The typical violation is when a pilot enters the airspace without establishing communications. Next most common would be failing to have transponder to mode C when either above or below the footprint of the Class C airspace. Many pilots have never been trained to fly in these new airspaces so retraining may also be required. To date only one out of every ten violations have escaped sanction. Ignorance is not an excuse. Failing to have a current sectional may result in an additional violation. Class C airspace is usually an area of high volume traffic. Get all the help you can.
Just reading the FARs does not do justice to the intricacies of what the practical applications of altitude requirements as applied in the real world of flying. The best way to study the airspace requirements is to plan several different flights between airports and run through the altitude and communications requirements.
Within 700/1200 of the ground in daytime the required cloud clearance is only "clear of clouds" and 1 mile visibility in the direction being flown. At night the requirements are 500/1000/2000 clear of clouds and 3 mile visibility unless within ½ mile of airport and in pattern.
Within 3000 of the ground, in VFR conditions, where 500/1000/2000 cloud clearance and 3 mile visibility can be maintained, there is no restriction as to what direction you must be flying in Class E airspace. Neither is there such a restriction if you are climbing and descending, regardless of altitude up to 18,000. Above 10,000 you must maintain 1000/1000/1 mile clear of clouds and 5 mile visibility. You must have an operating transponder above 10,000. If you become uncertain as to how the hemispheric rule applies to the magnetic course you are flying make gradual climbs and descents and you will technically never be in violation if you maintain the appropriate cloud clearance and visibility.
When it comes to choosing a flight altitude in VFR conditions between two points it is important that you consider several items:
Avoid 3000. Remember local flights tend to stay below 3000. No need to go high for short distances.
Most pilots tend to fly at even 500s even below 3000. Choose a unique altitude so as to avoid traffic.
Above 3000 AGL you must fly according to the hemispheric rule. Fly at 7,500 or 8,500 to minimize traffic conflicts but be aware when you cross, parallel or fly airways you should have local altimeter setting.
Choose an altitude appropriate to the terrain and airports. This means that route selection may be predicated on several factors. Choose an altitude appropriate to the winds. Winds usually increase in velocity with altitude. Plan accordingly. Choose an altitude with reference to special airspace restrictions, local hazards and cloud layers. (It is more likely to be a rough flight below clouds.
Flying low below a cloud deck and unlimited visibility has a variety of rules that change according to the IFR rule requirements. The VFR pilot must know how IFR rules and weather affect his VFR flight. Flyways such as SAC to OAK have transition floors of 700. The West Side of the Central Valley has mostly transition floors of 1200 except near airports with instrument approaches where the Class E airspace may reach the surface. Weather minimums jump to 3-mile visibility and 500/1000/2000-cloud clearance. IFR operations may exist. The lateral boundaries of Classes B, C, D, and E footprint when operational assures IFR pilots that VFR pilots will not be operating below VFR minimums. Airports with non-precision approaches, everything except the ILS, do not have Class E to the surface when the controlling facility is closed. The surface area becomes Class G below 700 feet. At night below basic VFR minimums you must not only remain within 700 of the surface, but within ½ mile of the runway.
Additionally, when in communication with ATC you come upon unique kinds of airspace. There is "My airspace" which is defined by geographic indicators or VOR radials. A careful look at an SFO sVFR Aria Chart will show that the upside-down wedding cake is divided into many areas in this way. Airspace that is not "my airspace" is "your airspace". Altitude on the VFR Area Chart has many divisions determined by altitude. In heavy traffic areas the MY is separated from the YOUR most often by altitude. Thus, many of the heading assignments and altitude restrictions are used to keep you in the MY airspace or to hand you off to YOUR airspace. At this point ATC or the FARs tell you to change frequencies.
Sectional and terminal charts will show the distinction between the categories of airspace that occur over a 24-hour period. All part-time Class D will be annotated to indicate change to Class D/E or Class D/G. The legend section of these charts will have an additional column. In addition the information will be available in the A/FD. Always check the NOTAMS for temporary changes in Class C, weather reports available in Class E, or changes in communications requirements.
Pilots are required to establish and maintain radio contact with any tower in Classes B, C, D, E and G airspace. The inclusion of E and G airspace is affected if there is a tower present and operating, weather reporting and instrument approaches without towers require entry/exit clearances when below VFR minimums (Visalia, CA). Towers are now known as Air Traffic Control Towers (ATCTs)
ATC often has individual difference in technique and procedure, which are within the limits of regulations. Being a controller is as much art in dealing with separation, navigation and procedure as it is regulations. One controller may use altitude restrictions while another uses vectors. There is more variation of procedures than there are pilots or controllers. Valid flexibility makes the system work; rigid compliance is a device used to make the system collapse.
A controller can assign altitudes to VFR traffic in Classes B, C, D, and E.
any controller clearance is supposed to be unambiguous. The distinction between immediate and expedite instructions is that immediate means urgent compliance is required while expedite allows some delay. If you ever have a problem with compliance, speak up. A good controller will not overload a pilot with a clearance. Two items are the preferred limit such as heading and altitude limit.
If ATC gives a traffic call or point out with nothing further, dont let it stop there. Let the controller know that you are looking but will accept any avoidance procedures he might suggest. Dont let ATC leave the avoidance of an aircraft you cant find up to you.
Above 18,000 Mean Sea Level to 60,000. IFR Clearance required. Aircraft must have proper equipment and pilot must be IFR qualified. High-level airway routes have direct courses and begin at FL (flight level) 180 and extend to FL 450.
Class A is always effective.
Class A = Altitude...
Airspace requirement:
Full ATC service provided.
Aircraft separation
Safety alerts
Communications two/way
Aircraft required equipment include:
720 frequency radio.
Mode C encoding transponder required
DME above 24,000
Pilot requirements include:
IFR current
High altitude endorsement
Incidentals:
Jet routes not shown on VFR Charts or low-level IFR enroute charts
Class B = Busy
Any ATC clearance/instruction requiring VFR entry into clouds must be refused. 250 kt speed restriction. Exists inside areas and altitudes shown by solid blue lines. Floors and ceilings are shown in blue. The airspace is always in effect. Communications frequencies shown in blue as well as below legend panel part of charts.
Operations:
IFR and VFR with clearance required for entry or departure into. Not to ask for a clearance into Class B according to the NTSB shows a lack of positional awareness. However, being given a heading into Class B, without any instructions to the contrary might be considered a clearance. Avoid questionable opportunities for the initiation of an FAA action. Get a clearance well away from Class b.
Airspace requirements:
Clearance into/out of required.
VFR requires 3 statute mile visibility clear of clouds
SVFR to lower visibility to 1 mile available when ceilings are less than 1000.
Clear of clouds
Aircraft separation
Traffic advisories may not be available
Collision avoidance may not be available
Safety alerts
Aircraft requirements include:
No VOR requirement except for IFR flight
Transponder with Mode C requirement in 30 NM circle
Radio requirement
Pilot requirements include:
Private Certificate
Private and student O.K. but student cannot land SFO.
Student may be allowed to land with proper sign-off at
places like Hawaii.
Incidentals:
Box name will have over it "No SVFR"
Helicopter SVFR may exist
= Contact...
Requires transponder with encoder use above tops, below bases out to
lateral limits depicted on sectional
Inner circle to surface
Radio contact but not clearance required.
Outer circle to MSL altitude on chart
ARSA will be outlined in solid magenta.
SVFR available
Some Class C airports can be entered much as Class D airports by avoiding
outside area of Class C. (Oakland)
Standard VFR cloud clearances and visibilities apply.
Consists of controlled airspace around a tower-controlled airport from surface to designated altitude of 4000 AGL. Exists inside areas lined with magenta as well as inside blue lines when connecting two magenta lines. Floor and ceiling is shown in magenta. Present VFR cloud clearances and visibilities apply. Part-time ARSAs change to Class D or E when radar service ceases.
Airspace requirements:
Clearances and radio contact
IFR subject to clearances and instructions
IFR separation from both IFR and VFR aircraft provided
VFR must establish two-way communications prior to entry
VFR gets advisories and, on request, conflict avoidance instructions
Visibility 3 statute miles
VFR must maintain 1000/500 and 2000 lateral cloud clearance unless under SVFR. SVFR clearance is required if cloud ceiling is less than 1000 or visibility below 3 miles. (Note difference in Class B)
VFR must have Mode C in and above lateral limits of ARSA to 10,000
Communications required even at uncontrolled airports as soon as
Separation for IFR, SVFR, and airport operations
Collision avoidance between IFR and VFR but not VFR to VFR
Traffic advisories
Safety advisories
VFR operations below and above the shelf floor is O. K. with Mode C transponder.
Aircraft Requirements:
Communications
Clearances
Pilot requirements:
Student certificate
Incidentals:
ARSAs will have solid magenta circles
Radio contact but not clearance required to enter airspace but not to fly above or below the airspace.
TERSA will be outlined black to show radar is available but not required.
Need to know information. Once you are on the ground in Class C airspace ATC will not allow you to depart without an operating transponder. Consider forming a flight of two.
Nice to know information. If you can arrange to tag along with another aircraft with an operating transponder as a flight-of-two you can escape. (A couple of years ago I left Reno Class C airspace without radios or transponder tagging along with another plane. The bad part of this was he was not heading where I wanted to go.)
(Airports with tower operating)
Exists between surface to upper limit of dashed blue/red lines shown by number in hundreds near center of circle. Class D airspace requires communications with primary airport for operations at satellite airports unless exemption is specified. 200-kt speed limit below 2500 AGL and 4.4 nm will exist as standard both larger and smaller (CCR) footprints exist. Provides separation only on the runway unless co-located with a TRSA. Airspace around airports is now detailed only on sectionals. Left hand traffic when tower is closed unless otherwise directed. Satellite airport departures/arrivals require that you establish and maintain communications when able. SVFR required when ceiling less than 1000 or visibility less than three miles.
Airspace areas exist in two ways:
a. Charted
b. Within published operating hours. Becomes Class E when closed.
c. When weather observer present.
Keyhole extension part of area is Class Echo shown as dashed lines. Tower contact required in extensions. It all becomes Class E when tower closes. Class Delta or Echo airspace does not exist at an airport where there is not a qualified weather observer. Concord has a non-standard Class D footprint of only 3.1 nautical miles. This applies to communications as well as airspace. For most purposes it is safer and more practical to communicate beyond the five-mile distance. In IFR conditions arrival extensions will be Class Delta up to two miles. Greater than 2 miles will be Class Echo. No communications will be required unless IFR conditions but do it anyway.
FAR 91.126 applies to Class G airspace. FAR 91.127 applies to Class E airspace. 91.130 applies to Class C airspace. The requirement exists to communicate will all towers regardless of airspace classification.
California frequently has persistent fog ceilings in the two to four thousand foot levels. The most desirable direct route to your destination may be directly over or near an airport with a tower. An airport surface area is a required communications space around an airport that is 4.4 nautical or five statute miles in radius and extends to 2500 AGL. The Class D airspace is shown on aviation charts. Occasionally, it is either necessary or desirable to fly through this Class D airspace without landing. Unless the ceiling (clouds) extends above 3000 a clearance would be required since you must remain 500 below any clouds in class E airspace.
Airspace requirements:
No collision avoidance advisories
Traffic advisories workload basis
No student SVFR
3 SM visibility
500/1000/2000 cloud clearance
Aircraft requirements:
Clearance for IFR
Communications for VFR
Pilot requirements:
Student certificate
ATC separation:
IFR, SVFR and runway operations
Radar:
Workload permitting
Safety alerts
TRSAs provide VFR separation unless declined by pilot. SVFR will be available in Bravo, Charlie, and Delta, surface-based E, or surface footprint of the airspace. There will be no changes in IFR rules or operations. VFR will be in Class B (TCA) where cloud clearances will be "clear of clouds". Additionally, Class D airspace will require communications with primary airport for operations at satellite airports unless exemption is specified. SVFR operations are permitted daytime (not by students). You can, establish contact with ATC, enter Class C airspace and refuse Class C radar service. Class C airspace provides IFR separation unless declined by the pilot. SVFR clearance required if you plan to proceed below three-mile visibility.
All Federal Airways, the Continental Control Area, and control areas are
associated with jet routes outside the continental Control Area, additional control areas, control area extensions, control zones for airports without operating control towers (this is the only instance where Class E touches the ground), transition areas and area low routes (Victor airways). Essentially everything that is not Classes A, B, C, or D. Base is shown by magenta dashed lines begin at the surface as extensions of airports Class D footprint with instrument (IFR) procedures and as at 700 where magenta shading exists. All other (blue or non-shaded begin at 1200 or as indicated. Class E designates airspace area for airports without operating control towers. Non-tower control zones will be depicted in magenta-segmented lines. Non-tower floor part will be Class E beginning at the surface and will tie into the adjacent transition areas of 700 and 1200. All Class E airspace covers entire U. S. above 1200 and extends upward to the overlying or adjacent controlled airspace. Certain areas in west extend from 14500 due to high terrain. IFR and VFR traffic separation is not ATC responsibility in Class Echo. ATC may give an advisory but they may not. Look out!
Airport extensions make a footprint to protect IFR approach routes. This Class E surface area extension of Class D surface area is controlled by weather. When below VFR minimums a SVFR clearance is required. In 1994 FAR 91.127 was reinstated to require two way communications be to established and maintained in Class E with an operating control tower in the vicinity. It is always a good idea to avoid IFR approach areas when visibility is poor.
Operations:
IFR & VFR---ATC has no authority or control.
Vertical limits will vary according to airspace abutting or above it.
FAR 91.155 and FAR 103
Airspace requirements:
Day: clear of clouds and one mile visibility when below 1200. Higher than 1200 requires 1 mile and 500/1000/2000 cloud clearance (See Ukiah area for exception of base of MOA)
Night: three-mile visibility, 1000/500 and 2000 lateral. ½ mile of airport in pattern exception at night
Radios not required.
ATC not available
Below 1200 AGL except where magenta which is below 700 AGL
IFR clearances only to MDA (Minimum descent altitude)
Non-clearance IFR legal but unsafe.
Aircraft requirements:
None
Communication requirements:
Radio for IFR only
Pilot requirements:
Student certificate
Radar:
Advisories workload permitting
Safety advisories
Low level airways begin at 1200 AFG and terminate at FL (flight level) 180 (but not including 18,000 MSL)
Airspace requirements:
IFR only requires radio and clearances
3 statute mile visibility,
5 statute mile visibility above 10,000
Cloud clearances 500/1000/2000
Above 10,000 cloud clearances 1000/1000/1 statute mile
Clear of clouds below 700/1200 AGL day
Basic VFR minimums night 3 miles, 500/1000/2000
Day SVFR for pilots in non-tower Class D (old CZ); No student SVFR
No conflict resolution by radar
Safety alerts
Pilot requirements:
Student certificate
Radar:
Workload permitting
Safety advisories
Dont fly here ever. White House, Personal residence of President, Area within 5 miles of president is prohibited airspace at any time. Some prohibited areas include crucial national defense sites, nuclear plants, missile installations, etc. All are under radar surveillance.
You should determine if area is "hot" or in use. Hazardous area usually due to military firing, bombs, explosive, missile activity. Clearance required. Designed to protect flying public. When not in use (active) a formal clearance must be requested and given from the controlling agency. Separation will be provided. IFR flights are automatically provided safe routing.
Same as Restricted area but over international waters beyond 3 mile-
limit of our borders. Contains hazards related to cannon, machine guns, and bombs. Clearance/flight plan required by U. S. aircraft.
Warning areas cannot be designated by the FAA as restricted areas because they are over international waters. Warning areas are regulated by the FAA from 3 to 12 miles but not regulated by the FAA beyond 12 nm.
High volume military flight areas are classified as Alert Areas. Basic VFR requirements exist but no clearance is required. Visual separation is a must. Travis airspace is an example.
Military Operational Areas (MOA)
ATC may fly IFR flights through if radar separation possible. Because of military aerobatics VFR flight requires caution. No clearance required but contact controlling agency to see if area is "hot". "Hot" area requires extreme caution and is best avoided. There are no prohibitions against flying in or through an MOA. The military is not very current with planned activity or notification. The military is normally required to give the FAA a two-hour notice before use. The lower limits of most MOAs allow you to underfly even when active. MOAs are depicted on sectionals and planning charts. Make it a standard flight procedure to ask nearby FSSs if MOAs are active. Flight around MOAs is the safest solution.
MOAs are not shown on WAC charts. On the sectional the MOA boundaries can be accurately determined by using VOR radials. The MOA is designed to separate some military activities from other aircraft. IFR traffic will be allowed by ATC into an MOA only if separation can be provided. VFR pilots enter active MOA airspace at their own risk. Always check with a nearby FSS regarding the status of any MOA in your flight path.
The sectional only shows airspace up to 18000. Many MOA by agreement between the FAA and the military extend the space to FL 24 and beyond. The letters are called ATCAAs. The hatched lines of MOAs are spaced wider than are the hatched lines of Restricted Areas.
A C-150 will be invisible to an F-16, which can climb and dive 20,000 feet in seconds. Keep your eyes outside the aircraft at all times in the MOA. Look high and low. Turn toward any aircraft to keep that aircraft in sight. Climb or dive to avoid since pitch rate is much faster than roll rate. ATC may fly IFR flights through if radar separation possible. Because of military aerobatics VFR flight requires caution. No clearance required but contact controlling agency to see if area is "hot". "Hot" area requires extreme caution and is best avoided.
Military Training Routes (MTR)
If you find that your flight will intersect an MTR route, be sure to have
the FSS run a check on its activity schedule as part of your preflight. Routing or separation protects IFR pilots. MTR allow military flights to operate at higher speeds than are normally allowed below 10,000 feet.
Light gray lines on sectional for military training without 250-kt speed restriction. VFR listed as VR#### (4 numbers) at or below 1500 of surface. Terrain following only if visibility is over 5 nautical miles. IFR listed as IR### (three numbers) is usually flown above 1500. Speeds above 250 knots are relatively common. Actual flight width covers several miles especially where the lines intersect. FSS should have current status list and should be contacted if routes conflict with your route of flight. Consider all routes hot and requiring clicking eyeballs. Military speeds will be in excess of 250 knots. At 250 knots it only takes 14.4 seconds for an aircraft to bloom full size on your windshield.
MTR routes extend for ten miles to each side of the thin gray line shown on the sectional. The width varies for each segment and is not depicted. As part of your weather briefing the FSS will give you MTR information within 100 miles of your flight route but you must ask.
MTR information should be asked of a weather briefer any time you make a cross-country flight that will take you in the vicinity of a MTR. The information you get will include the times and altitudes of activity.
Not on charts but often mentioned by VOR/Tower broadcasts. Locally by Livermore ATIS to warn of National Guard firing range near Danville/San Ramon border as being "hot". Best way to avoid incursion problem is to file IFR.
An IFR clearance that transits a SUA does not allow flight through that airspace unless cleared as filed is a part of the clearance. If the airspace should become hot while enroute you will be issued an amended clearance.
Temporary Flight Restrictions (TFR)
Broadcast by ATC to warn air traffic to remain clear of areas such as open air affairs, forest fires, space launches, crime scenes, etc. See material on TCA, ARSA and clearances, surface operation. Each of these areas is sources for deviations from the FARs and reasons for FAA enforcement actions.
Advisory Circular 91-63B dated 2/28/97 explains how a TFR comes into being. Nearly any governmental agency can request and obtain a TFR from the air traffic manager having jurisdiction over the airspace concerned. The primary objective is safety and NOTAMs are kept to a minimum in line with this objective. Airspace limits are usually 2000 and a 3-nautical mile boundary about the area. Special restrictions apply to aircraft authorized to fly inside the TRF area. In the Bay Area and California TFRs are most likely to exist around fires and floods.
Friend of mine was FAA Violated on a non-stop flight from Arizona to Napa when he over-flew Lemore Naval Air Station at 8500. There was NOTAM out regarding an air show. It had to stop while he was in vicinity. It happens.
Uses radar and visual lookout to suspend activity when aircraft in area. Low altitude tactical navigation areas (LATN)& Slow-speed low-altitude
LATN areas are not charted, speed is limited to 250 knots, and altitudes as low as 100. Only the units using the LATN areas know the boundaries. SRs appear only in the Department of Defense, Flight Information Publication (FLIP) Low Altitude Tactical Navigation areas (LATN)& are flown at slow speeds and low altitudes.
Throughout the U.S. the states and federal government have placed altitude restrictions on flight over many different classification of game areas. Federal limits are printed in an area on the sectional margin. State restrictions are located near the area concerned. Sometimes the altitudes are different but generally 2000 AGL is required. The areas have an extended row of dots about the perimeter. The Greater Monterey Coast area of 4,024 square nautical miles has a possible $50,000 fine for any flight below 1000.